You're forgetting - that if he invested $120K into AVZ, then his profits from pip-trading would be more than $120K - presuming that he had to pay tax on these profits since the 'easter-egg' days.... that is - if he has paid tax on the (lets ay - $150-180K?)
If he is claiming that this his current holdings are his 'trading stock' and thus - not paying tax on the profits from previous trading profits - then that treatment would also be incorrect (and would jeopardise his ability to access the 50% CGT discount).
Mindless ramblings from another accountant.
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