Just having a flick through on a lazy day.
When is a NO a YES ?
See page 12 of the scheme booklet;
"The court has the discretion to waive the first of these two requirements (ie, the more than 50% individual votes required to vote yes) if it considers it appropriate to do so"
I suppose the court COULD over-ride the NO vote if it was say 50.00001% 'no' but the yes vote had 99% of the shares - interesting discretion.
Why doesn't the court have the same discretion on the 2nd arm, ie, the 75% of shares?
Who says the court has discretion on 1 and not the other?
Interesting
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