Scientists and ...!, page-3669

I'll start with your last comment and point out your flaws;

You would think not or deny it, by you are the one denying 1 John 4:2.
The flesh in this context = Human, man and You claim he is not human by saying he pre-existed as a spirit.
Man does NOT pre-exist as a Spirit.
Jesus Christ having come in flesh is of God --> Greek - Jesus Christ in flesh having come..........

So the truth is not saying, implying, Jesus came from somewhere and then popped into flesh = no, no and NO.
In flesh --> Luke 1:35 - And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore (for THIS reason only) also that holy one which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.
HENCE, he did NOT pre-exist in any way shape or form other than in the mind and plans of God, known as your inner Logos (Word) as in
Eph 3:9 - And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God,-->who created all things.

"Having come" --> This is referring to none other than after Baptism WHEN he was THEN sent into the world.
Example of this actually sent, sending timing --> John 17:18 - As thou hast sent me into the world, even so have I also sent them into the world.
God raised, led and taught Jesus for 20 plus years and then God sent him into the world.
(Luke 4:18 - The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the Good News (= The Word) to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,
"Even so", likewise, Jesus led and taught them and then like he was, he sent them into the world.

So Tonio, like or lump it, YOU are the one denying your ref 1 John 4:2 and the sad part, you have NOT a clue your doing so.
Satan wouldn't deny Jesus was flesh and I can assure YOU, that does not place him on good terms.

So if I were you, I would get a true grasp of what that verse is really saying.
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Phil 2:6 - Who, being in the form (Greek = outward appearance) of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

"Form" --> Why = The Almighty God and father IS the Holy Spirit, The Word and Light, the true light John 1:9 fo which Jesus now exalted, is Dwelling in 1 Tim 6:16.
Jesus was given the Spirit/Word without measure = the Almighty God and Father, the Godhead dwelling Jesus, which then meant that Jesus BECAME a light into the world --> Shining the Almighty God and Fathers light, The Word, the words of eternal life.
Act 2:22 - Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God --> did through (because of, for the sake of, by reason of) him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know:

YOU paying attention as to WHO was actually doing all these things?
Not to mention, Jesus effectively says many time, "I can do nothing of myself.

So silly boy, how could he Not have the outward appearance, considering the above.
Jesus tells us why in John 14:10.

So this form ONLY come about after around 20 plus years of being led and taught via God and being Given the Spirit/Word without measure.

Phil 2:7 - but himself emptied (this notion, form of God), form of a servant haven taken, in the likeness of men.............

NOW then, lets include the other verses before this, to get the TRUE context instead of distorting the Truth as most of you do;
2:1-5 - If there be therefore any consolation in Christ, if any comfort of love, if any fellowship of the Spirit, if any bowels and mercies,
Fulfil ye my joy, that ye be likeminded, having the same love, being of one accord, of one mind.
Let nothing be done through strife or vainglory; but in lowliness of mind let each esteem other better than themselves.
Look not every man on his own things, but every man also on the things of others.
Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:

We even have a clear example of what this is saying, Jesus washes the feet of some others.
This passage has absolutely ZERO to do with a pre-existing Jesus emptying himself prior to his conception and to suggest otherwise is most definitely not of God.
In fact, it would be using God's name (The Word) in vain.

Jesus was raised, led via God, Given the Spirit/Word without measure, but rather than making himself to be high and mighty so to speak, this thought or thoughts is exactly what he emptied himself of, humbled himself of which we are asked to do also.
So cut out the rubbish Tonio.
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Jesus, you SILLY silly Boy was Given The Word and he says so 4 times in John alone.
The Word = God, did Not become flesh, The Word = God came IN the flesh, man Jesus.
Jesus was the Temple you silly boy, just are we are supposed to be the Temple BUT, that makes us no more the Almighty God and Father as it does Jesus.

If you claim Jesus is the word then You, need to show us the Bible evidence that Jesus said the likes of, "and God said let there be light and the other times in Gen, about another 9, God said, God said as John 1:3, dictates this.
John 1:1-2, is followed immediately with 1:3 the creation event = The word of Life 1 John 1:1 which is speaking of the creation events.
Please don't try and tell us, John's opener changes topics after 2 verses.

Not to mention, there should be NO capital W added to word in these verses.


As for John 1:14, it is in reference to two totally different identities, The Almighty God and Father the Word and Jesus the Temple, which God dwelt in, as Jesus tells us so, the BEGOTTEN son who had to be BEGOTTEN AGAIN after he died.