Share Valuation, page-7

Hi Camdenbob,

I am of the understanding that the money from the farm in agreements are not included the official income figures. Can anyone explain why not?

My logic states we have sold part of an asset, a part of the future income stream say of Amadeus Basin, for example, to Santos for $150 odd million. Why shouldn't this income be included in our earnings? Any purchaser will get the benefit from our farm in agreements and yet we shouldn't include them in our valuation. Surely, this cannot be right.

Perhap's if I was an account I shouldn't take into account the money from farm ins but I'm not so I will and I think others should too!!

Cheers

Stoops