Ofcourse the scenario you put forward is plausible. But if the end goal is tranfer of ownership at 3c(below currect market), then why not just do an offmarket transfer?
If the goal is to drive the sp lower, then the cross trade wasnt responsible and it was the 1million seller that did that.
Ofcourse, the 1mil seller is probably the same person, but he is taking a risk. Assuming the cross trade is related party colluding because the initial 1million seller is selling low to an outsider.
He needs to be able to recoup his loss.
What is shows is anyone with deep pockets can manipulate a sp in either direction, its not restricted to shorting or cross trades.
I like your thinking.
cheers
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