Ugetreal! Just a scenario how it works.
1) Assume fund manager initially bought at $4.00 (a few years ago). At $6.00, fund manager wants to buy more BUT NOT at $6.00, want to buy at $3.00. The fund follow index closely so cannot sell too many shares to push share price down. How does fund manager buy more shares at $3 if without short sellers? Can't!
2) Lend to short sellers, collect premium AND dividends. Let short sellers crash the market to push down to the price long-buyer wants to buy eg $3.00.
3) Short sellers pushed down to $3.00. The same fund manager bought more shares at $3.00 (as sp fall, fund manager needs to top-up to re-balance the weight to follow the index).
4) Sp recovers to $6 later on in the long run.
Fund manager makes profit from:
a) $4 to $6 - the initial purchase
b) Short-seller premium
c) Dividends
d) Bought more shares at $3 (move to $6)
Without short-sellers, fund manager cannot get (b) and (d).
Once get back to $6, the fund will be overweight so fund manager trim down to rebalance weighting.
This just a scenario how short-sellers essentially help long holders make money. Just IMHO.
I initially bought at $3.45 (after trading halt) now make big profit. Thanks to hedge fund like Jim Chino.
Thank you very much short sellers, you make me rich.
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Last
$19.54 |
Change
-0.370(1.86%) |
Mkt cap ! $60.16B |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
$19.52 | $19.75 | $19.29 | $225.1M | 11.80M |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
1 | 2000 | $19.52 |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
$19.54 | 6420 | 1 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
1 | 2000 | 19.520 |
1 | 1000 | 19.510 |
4 | 6650 | 19.500 |
3 | 7100 | 19.490 |
1 | 138 | 19.480 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
19.540 | 6420 | 1 |
19.550 | 9366 | 3 |
19.560 | 6300 | 1 |
19.570 | 10821 | 2 |
19.580 | 13225 | 3 |
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