Here's sth I don't get.
Person A holds say 1,000,000 AGO shares.
Some banana (person B) says I wanna borrow 500,000 shares from A to short.
If current AGO price is say $1.50 (yeah wishful thinking lol), why would person A lend B 500,000 shares when the price is probably gonna go down and he probably should cover himself and sell so he won't lose money? Since if B has his shares A can't sell.
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Here's sth I don't get.Person A holds say 1,000,000 AGO...
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