Is it possible that someone who borrowed shorts opt to take some of the $'s in price difference and ownership of the shares to cover the rest of the cost. This way the sold shares remain sold and the borrow has made money. The owner of the shares may see it is a better loss.
No on market buying of shares is needed then. Hence covered short positions and no on market buying done.
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Is it possible that someone who borrowed shorts opt to take some...
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---|---|---|
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