sp after ex-div, page-67

proofreeder: "Mundy... Might not want to dig yourself any deeper."

Mundy: "And if you still don't get that! Then I think you had better go back to pre-school, Oh and by the way did you even bother to check the link to the asx video I had posted earlier ? I doubt it, otherwise you really need some help."

Mundy, it's fine being wrong, we all make mistakes. Being wrong and insulting people however is what I meant by digging your own grave. And yes, I checked it, so I must really need help.

I hate wasting time on this but:

"Ex dividend date
The ex dividend date occurs four business days before the company's Record Date. To be entitled to a dividend a shareholder must have purchased the shares before the ex dividend date. If you purchase shares on or after that date, the previous owner of the shares (and not you) is entitled to the dividend."

Mundy: "I stated this is correct ! But I also added you must hold the shares until after the record date, The record date as its name suggests is to record who is the registered holder and as such entitled to the dividend."

Okay, so you agree with the above quotated statement then.

You agree the ex dividend date is the 24th.

You must also therefore agree that someone who purchases shares on that date does not get the dividend, it goes to the person you bought it from.

Now answer me this, "If (someone) purchase(s) shares on (or after) that date, the previous owner of the shares (and not you) is entitled to the dividend". So if the previous owner is entitled to the dividend when someone purchases shares from them on the 24th, HOW DID SOMEONE PURCHASE THE SHARES OFF THEM IF THEY DID NOT SELL ON THE 24th? ie BEFORE THE RECORD DATE? And if they did sell on the 24th, the above statement clearly states they are entitled to the dividend.

The point you are missing is, if you sell on the 24th, TECHNICALLY you still hold on the record date, because it takes 3 days for the sale to go through. Hence the term "effective" date. If you sell on the record date, technically you still hold 3 days after the record date.

If your idea WERE true, who would get the dividend of those shares sold between the ex-div date and the record date? Would they just disappear? Get dissolved back into the company? Where would the no-mansland dividends go? You have read what it says, but people will always misunderstand or misinterpret explanations. Thinking about it logically though, what you are saying doesn't make sense.

I have tried explaining this to you without insulting you, although I was bloody exasperated. May I suggest in the future you try the same.