Surely if the sp was over $2.00 before meltdown (md)and before any meaningful production then once the CDO is lifted the company must be worth $2.00 per share again not 50c or 80c or or or.
My point being that if the resource exists and is minable why would the company be valued at a lesser value that two years ago less dilution.
Somewhere there seems to have been a real mistake re the valuation of this company.
Why was this so ?
Where did the information come from to provide the basis for this valuation ?
Why is the same resource now worth less ?
If the company was never worth $ 2.00 per share why did so many punters believe that it was ?
Surely if the sp was over $2.00 before meltdown (md)and before...
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37.0¢ |
Change
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Mkt cap ! $2.499B | |||
| Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
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Buyers (Bids)
| No. | Vol. | Price($) |
|---|---|---|
| 96 | 1024221 | 36.5¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
| Price($) | Vol. | No. |
|---|---|---|
| 37.0¢ | 1179146 | 50 |
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