Oh dear - OK, I will explain my question to @swap to you, this...

Oh dear - OK, I will explain my question to @swap to you, this is a discussion forum after all. From Swap:

"...Put simply, at a macro level, after a period of non-performance which the research indicates is 2-3 years, if the problem facing a company or industry ISN'T TERMINAL (and we don't think it is at this stage for SPX), there is a stunningly high probability (almost statistical certainty) that mean reversion will kick in at some point."

So, the time frame would be 3 years maximum, according to their research. The graph PD posted, or the one at the top of your screen on the RHS hardly needs a calculator to even have a guess at the mean price over the last 3 years. No need to go back to MOT days, or the large consolidation that took place back then
that raised the share price, not the market cap (You can research that if you care to)

Hence my question. A simple and straightforward one to a poster that claims they are part of a group of 'Deep Value Investors' Perhaps you take your own advice about considered and calm discussion without name calling or disparaging remarks.

You have said your 'mean' is 10c

OK, Mine is far far different, so what is their (This value group) mean amount? Why do you want to answer for them? And you did not even answer, just spouted rubbish

Perhaps you try reading "...Graham and Dodd, with subsequent work by de Bont and Thaler and others, including more recent work at Columbia" I believe they mentioned Buffet as well

You may learn what the flaw in Swap's reasoning is.....though probably not

Cheers,

Ballsup, by name and nature - NFA, IMO and as usual NFI