Just asking an ignorant question.
Is it possible that today's poor finish may be the result of (or some of) the option holders who recently converted taking a profit?
Looking back over the last couple of years, I don't know who they were sold ( read given ) to.
I would doubt that many of those recently issued shares would have sold out with news pending.
Comments or thoughts from those with a deeper historical understanding than myself would be appreciated.
TIA
Just asking an ignorant question.Is it possible that today's...
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