The Word was a God ? John 1:1 JW Bible, page-14

G'day from WA - the real Australia lol.

Are you able to handle the Greek truth from whence our said translations come from?
Are you prepared to actually switch off what has been fed to you for just a little while and see, hear, God's truth, Spirit of Truth which he is.
Trust me, to actually really switch off and open ones mind, is an extremely hard task, you need to prepare for war.

First though --> John 14:13 - And whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do, that --> the Father may be glorified in the Son.
In my name = Now exalted and by inheritance, name ONLY = The Word of God (Name means and represents the role God had and planed for him).
You also need to be aware of the verse, that when asking, do NOT come asking like the tossing waves of the ocean, as in, maybe I will get their truth if I ask.
Consider it done before asking, or don't ask at all.

Before one enters John 17:5, a few things from the Bible (God) need to be understood, aware of.
God himself is also Glory.
His words and words of his plan are also known as Glory.
Example = Titus 1:2 - In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before time eternal;
2 Tim 1:9 - Who hath saved us, and called us with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before time,
(Clearly here, this is IN the mind and plans of God, known also as his inner logos = Word --> thought, reason etc and as John 1:2 The same, this, it (Titus etc) was in the beginning with God).
So the two references here are known as Glory, mind and plans of God.

Rev 13:8 - And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of theLamb slain -->from the foundation of the world. (Lamb not literally slain = in the mind and plans, thought, reason of God's).
So this verse 13:8, is part of the inner creation of God, beginning of the creation of God, known also as Glory, which also brings us to --> Rev 3:14 - And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen (Jesus), the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God;
As in Col 1:15 - Jesus being the firstborn of creation.

Jesus being the beginning of the creation of God, the firstborn of creation, simply means, by God's own purpose and reasoning, before the world even literally existed, the first of his thoughts, inner creation where your creation begins, was to be a future Jesus, where down the track, God would beget him and place all things into his hands, until death no more.

2 Sam 7:12-14 - And when thy days be fulfilled, and thou shalt sleep with thy fathers, I will set up thy seed after thee, which shall proceed out of thy bowels, and I will establish his kingdom.
He shall build an house for my name, and I will stablish the throne of his kingdom for ever.
I will be his father, and he shall be my son. If he commit iniquity, I will chasten him with the rod of men, and with the stripes of the children of men:

No hint here in anyway shape or form that this one to be, existed in anyway shape or form, other than in the mind and plans of God, again, known also as Glory.
The Bible shows us that God sees, considers things not yet done, as though they are done, complete.
So can you imagine the Glory, excitement, joy or whatever, if you were in God's position here?


John 17:5 as per the Greek words and their meanings and not wotsup's;

And now Glorify Me You, Father, with Yourself, with the Glory insofar held before the world existed, with You.

Jesus for the first time, asking for God's literal, physical, presence = Glory.
God is Glory as is his words and message, hence Jesus asks for Glory insofar as held via GOD alone, The Plan BEFORE the would literally existed --> With God alone = in other words, while the plan of Jesus and the world existed with God, known as Glory.
Jesus, makes no reference to this plan existing with him as well, literally.

Most Bibles have the words - "with the glory which I had"...... and if you actually LOOK at the Greek words or word from where this "I" is suppose to come from, there are ZERO grounds to ADD this "I" word.
So I can come to no other conclusion than to say, it must be mans bias addition, pre-set mind doing the interpretation and NOT of God.
Now then, you have to examine, define the actual Greek words and not simply roll with the said English translations bellow them.
Sad that one should even have to do so, but there are a few areas where we have no options.

The truth of Rev 13:8, 3:14 and Col 1:15 and many more OT passages, dictate the TRUE interpretation of John 17:5, whether we like it or not.
The Bible is VERY clear, Jesus was the 2nd Adam which is Man, and it is also clear, the 2nd come well after the 1st Adam.
And, God ONLY spoke in/through Jesus in these LAST days = None other than AFTER Baptism WHEN Jesus was sent into the world and we know The Word (Almighty God and Father) was well and truly around before then.
Making Jesus NOT The Word or the Word of God, but carries the name only, meaning and representing the role he did.
Hence why I expect, the Bible in Rev 19:12, says no man knows this name = The Word of God.
They don't get, understand, it's meaning, representation.
Yet,...everyone appears to ignore this clear message in Rev 19:12 ??????