I'll just cover the Basics of what I see, which is also based on...

I'll just cover the Basics of what I see, which is also based on the overall theme of the Bible.

But if you prefer, perhaps go to the last section, and put side your thoughts if possible and mine and tell me what you see, in other words, try a see it with an unbias view.


" "firstborn over all creation"

For your info or truth, "over" does not and should not be in this verse.

It just says - firstborn all creation.
Or as Rev 3:14 puts it, Jesus is - the beginning of the creation of God.

However, the trinity god that you promote, says that Jesus was not created and that he always existed, despite the Bible in childlike language, saying other wise.

Out of all the OT passages that speak of a future Jesus, not a single one even hints at, that this future one already existed in some way, shape or form that would come down and take upon flesh or enter Mary.
So WHY in God's name would anyone even consider otherwise and ADD the notion ??????????????

As Luke for example shows in childlike language, Jesus's first beginnings of all time began from his birth from Mary.
Therefore the firstborn of creation cannot be taken literally.
So logic and common sense tells one, that he as a plan to be in the mind of God, was the firstborn of God's inner creations, right WHERE all our creations begin, before we express them forth in one way or another.

With the plan of a Jesus to be, in the forefront of God's mind, his driver/motivation so to speak, all things were created in him (because of) through, on account of, by reason of, because of, for the sake of him and that incudes us.
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What Word became flesh = Just as Luke clearly shows us - obviously the word of Yehowah was expressed forth to the Angel who in turn expressed them forth to Mary. (Isa 55:10, 11 for example)
Like, let there be light, let there be a Jesus.
Because the word and power (only) came down and made the 2nd Adam Man, he is deemed as heavenly, not made of dust, earthly.

Hence the word becoming flesh happened as per Luke and NOT in John 1:14.
1:14 - And the Word Man (existing) became = on the scene and dwelt.....................
Not - And the Word became man...........

1:1 And God (Father) was/is the Word.
Apart from a title, we know what "the" means, hence to make it easier we can temporarily remove it.
Present tense - And God is Word.
Word God - image of = Word Man.
Jesus in 1:14 is being referenced as Word Man.
He is deemed as a Word of God, titled "The" as he became the Key carrier of the word of the God and Fathers.
Father = The Word and Son by inheritance = The Word of God.

Ask yourself a simple question, WHY does Rev 19:12 say, that No one knows this name for Jesus, when it's in your face in the next verse????
I would suggest, it is because they have no clue as to what it means and represents?
Most seem to think, it is saying that he is the Word, confirming it = it clearly shows he is "OF" and you're certainly never what you are of.
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Might I suggest to you, get to the Interlinear through Bible Hub and pay attention and read from Col 1:15 -18 and also don't forget to click onto the number above the word "through" in 16 etc.
Pay attention as to WHY 16 says he is the firstborn of creation!
Then can to explain to me, your thoughts as to what you think -> "because in him were created all things...." -> what do you think "in Him" means here?

DON'T LOOSE SIGHT OF THE FACT, THE PASSAGES ARE SPEAKING ABOUT THE JESUS IN THE HERE AND NOW OF THE TIMES, AS THEY SAW AND HEARD OF HIM.
Not to mention, pay attention to 1:18 as to why and WHEN he obtained literal preeminence. (fulfillment of the plan)
Considering the context of the passages, if he pre-existed, would he not already hold this literal preeminence?