It does NOT say - And the Word became Man..........That's...

It does NOT say - And the Word became Man..........

That's correct.

1:14 - Καὶ -> and ὁ -> the Λόγος -> word σὰρξ -> flesh (man) ἐγένετο -> became


It says and the Word Flesh became which means and the Word became Flesh DRRRRRRRR = SIMPLES!

= your trying to pull the cart before the horse lol.

You're pulling something as well as trying to pull the wool over people's seeing eyes to blind them.

Tell me Gum, in your mind, if one was to accept the truth that Jesus is not the Word in 1:1

I know those who believe in wotsupianity believe that but I only know one person who practises that religion.
He tries to pull the wool over other's eyes to blind them. He's a wolf.

what do you think that means and WHY would you seem to have a problem with that????

I don't have a problem with anyone's beliefs. This would be a problem for the person in truth who believes it unless they were practising wotsupianity.

Do you think he would not then be good enough to atone for sins?

The Word became Flesh did atone for sins = SIMPLES > DRRRRRRRR
It's how the biblical story is.

Likewise if he is as per truth, 2nd Adam Man

That is the truth.

and that is all he is,

I understand that is how Jesus is in wotsupianity but not in elementary Christianity.

do you think the above would apply, as ppm says?

From what I understand, ppm does not say that. ppm follows and understands elementary Christianity.
I don't expect the wool could be pulled over his eyes to follow such beliefs as wotsupianity.
No Christian would think that ppm suggests such nonsense, that Jesus is not good enough to atone for sins in the flesh. That is absolute nonsense.
A full on dope would suggest such.

If so, where do you get that idea from?

Some full on dope would suggest that idea. A clueless full on dope who has no clue about elementary Christianity.