This is a very important message for those who do not know God., page-358

The translation in John 1 :1 cannot be translated to 'pertaining toward' because it would require a transitive verbal construct in the grammar. This is not present.

So we have the Word and God in the most intimate relationship yet separate and distinct. Coupled with the start of the passage in Greek "En arche" which is a term not anchored in time so you can push that intimate relationship back into eternity past.

We also have a double separation of the Word and God in John 1:1 there is no definite article in 1b, with John employing the anarthrous use of theos ( Word was God).

If the definite article was present then everything that was the Word and everything that was God could be interchangeable. You could pick up the Word and plunk it down into God and vice versa you could pick up God and plunk it down into the Word. So a definite article if used in this passage would not have taught Christianity it would have been a proof text for Sebellianism an early second century heresy.

Have a great day gumUnderfoot.

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