Forgive my ignorance as this may have been explained
1/ why is the price in US so much higher and not an exact equivalent
2/ why is it good for the price to be so much higher as potentially killing interest in US - clearly everyone is after a bargain and not after paying premium to original price
3/ why should US investor be interested in an artificially inflated overseas share and not think "hang on - these numbers don't match"
Please do enlighten me if you understand
Many thanks
lucky8
Forgive my ignorance as this may have been explained 1/ why is...
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29.5¢ |
Change
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Mkt cap ! $428.5M | |||
| Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
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| No. | Vol. | Price($) |
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| 4 | 53192 | 29.5¢ |
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| Price($) | Vol. | No. |
|---|---|---|
| 30.5¢ | 41048 | 1 |
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