How did that hypothetical player re-accumulate the stock they sold to drop the price? they would have to buy more than they sold for a lower average price point. Can anyone show how if this is possible in this case? For the record, i have huge doubts to the manipulation hypothesis
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Last
56.0¢ |
Change
-0.015(2.61%) |
Mkt cap ! $214.5M | |||
| Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
| 56.5¢ | 57.5¢ | 55.5¢ | $271.5K | 481.3K |
Buyers (Bids)
| No. | Vol. | Price($) |
|---|---|---|
| 4 | 13694 | 56.0¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
| Price($) | Vol. | No. |
|---|---|---|
| 56.5¢ | 13983 | 12 |
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| Last trade - 11.41am 05/07/2024 (20 minute delay) ? |
| TLG (ASX) Chart |