Has anyone got any idea why there are 35 million OB buyers at .1...

Has anyone got any idea why there are 35 million OB buyers at .1 and still 17 million sellers at .2

If the buyers wanted to convert the surely 1.5 + .1 or 1.5+ .2 is not much of a difference and with 35 million buyers I would have assumed many would just pay .2 ?

The same goes for if they were using the loan facility. the loan value is the same regardless of if they pay .1 or .2 and years down the track, that .1 difference is irrelevant.

It makes no sense to me unless the buyer and seller are the same person and cashing in on the difference whenever a real buyer or seller decides they want to buy or sell and not much to earn from that since volumes are tiny.

Any theories?