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I AND MY FATHER ARE ONE” JOHN 10:30ManyChristians quote this verse and they also quote john 10:31-33 to support theirargument such as:
“Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him.Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God. “
TheChristians stop at verse 33 and say that here Jesus claimed to be God and hencethe jews started stoning him.
When weread the very next verse after john 10:33, Jesus Christ himself responds to tothis misunderstanding of Jews (and some christians today).
ManyChristians do not quote the next verse which gives jesus's response to thejewish claim that he was claiming to be God, and in this verse jesus deniestheir accusation that he claimed to be god.
Tthejews accused jesus of claiming divinity and the christians also say that jesuswas making this assertion and claim but jesus clearly denies this in John10:34-36
Let'ssee jesus's response to their accusation.
John10:34-36 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye aregods? 35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and thescripture cannot be broken; 36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified,and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?
Inreply to the jews accusation Jesus replies by quoting Psalms 82:6 "I havesaid, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High." In otherwords jesus is telling them that if your own book calls you as God , why areyou accusing me when i only said i'm a son of god? You are called Gods n i'm onlysaying i'm a son of God.
Jesussays i'm only calling myself son of elohim where as you are called elohim andif jesus really claimed divinity, what other accusation do the jews need tokill him?? this is more than what they want, infact there can be no reasongreater than this, but rather they accuse him and condemn him because heclaimed to be the messiah. The analogy is like a robber who robs a bank andalso a coke tin and he is accused n imprisoned for the theft of the coke tinand not the bank robbery.
Moreoverif jesus meant divinity by saying "i and the father are one" he wouldhave used the word "heis" for "one" and not"hen", the word in john 10.30 is "hen" which means one inpurpose not in status or person.
Reference-
1 corinthians 3.8, where this same word "hen" is used and see how it is translated by NIB,NIV,NLT, NRS,
1Cor 3:8 The one who plants and the one who waters have a common purpose*, and each will receive wages according to the labor of each.
Thegreek that is translated as "have a common purpose" is the same word"hen"
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Jesusdoes not mean the oneness that the christian thinks because the greek is"hen estin" which means "one we are" or "we areone"
Also ifyou say that jesus is God because he said that he was one with the father, thenhis disciples are also Gods or are in God head just as jesus because jesus usesthe word one, only once as pertaining to him and God but uses it 5 times inrelating the disciples with God.
Reference-
John17:11 "Now I am no longer in the world, but these are in the world, and Icome to You. Holy Father, keep through Your name those whom You have given Me,that they may be one as We are.
John17:21 "that they all may be one, as You, Father, are in Me, and I in You;that they also may be one in Us, that the world may believe that You sent Me.
John17:22 "And the glory which You gave Me I have given them, that they may beone just as We are one:
John17:23 "I in them, and You in Me; that they may be made perfect in one, andthat the world may know that You have sent Me, and have loved them as You haveloved Me.
Isjesus praying that the 12 disciples including judas(the traitor) be taken intogodhead? NO!!
Hemeans that they may be one in purpose just as jesus and god are.
I hopethis reply is sufficient for the christians.
NoteOne more thing here:
Manyenglish translations translate verse 36 and have jesus refer to himself as “THESon of God,” while in the greek text the definite article "the, i.eho/thon" is absent , the greek has jesus calling himself as “A Son ofGod”, and not as “THE Son of God”. Refer to the ASV, ERV, NIV etc. which haveexcluded the word "the" or either its in brackets as in ASV. Now whatcan the translator do, to translate it correctly while not having jesus beingcalled as "a" son?? they translate it as "i am god's son".Refer to NIV, ASV, DBY etc and YNG traslates it as “Son of God I am?”.
MayAllah Guide Us All To The Right Track(AAMEEN)
Explainthis bible verse ' I and My Father are one' Dr Zakir Naik #HUDATV
