Can someone explain this?
How is it possible for WTI to go to negative 30 odd with Brent approx. 25 where theoretically if your a buyer why not take the negative 30 instead of paying 25 in terms of market options?
Now some might say if you take the negative 30 you have to have a ship somewhere to pick it up immediately so its not realistic and generally pragmatic. If thats the case why has the WTI reference not automatically shifted to at a later timeframe with the immediate period reported as a secondary guide so a later price, reflective of pragmatics and genuine demand and supply fundamentals, can be singled for comparison to Brent?
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Can someone explain this?How is it possible for WTI to go to...
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