Hi Robbbbbbb, I am sure you have answered this question in the past, but probably before my time. Why do you use the 41 & 195 day EMAs as opposed to say 50 & 200 day SMAs? My understanding of the EMAs vs SMAs is that they are more responsive to recent trend changes - is that why you use them? Also, did you choose 41 & 195 because they are the most equivalent EMAs to the 50 & 200 day SMAs? The main benefit I find in using the 50 & 200 day SMAs is that more people seem to use them so its more possible to compare charts. Cheers, Sharks.
