chibrown
No. I was directly addressing the post to richrichie.
In response to your comment the lender would have issued DML with a Deed of Forebearance. This would mean that the lender has not enforced its rights as set out in the terms of the loan agreement but it does not limit the rights of the lender to act because they have allowed the borrower not to comply with their obligations.
This would also mean that they are still in default.
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