"(Excuse any ignorance here - but how can you sell a share if you haven't borrowed it in the first place ? i.e. where does the share come from - from existing holdings ?)"
JArecki,
I agree with you that it should be the case but, Why don't you ask the hedge funds how they are doing it, and getting away with it.
It is a known fact that they are, and have been doing it, for a long while now. That is why it is called naked shorting. That is the selling of shares which have not been borrowed.
Buddy
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Last
$1.34 |
Change
-0.005(0.37%) |
Mkt cap ! $3.045B | |||
| Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
| $1.34 | $1.35 | $1.32 | $5.267M | 3.948M |
Buyers (Bids)
| No. | Vol. | Price($) |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | 12000 | $1.34 |
Sellers (Offers)
| Price($) | Vol. | No. |
|---|---|---|
| $1.34 | 385 | 1 |
View Market Depth
| Last trade - 16.11pm 07/07/2025 (20 minute delay) ? |
| BPT (ASX) Chart |