Hi All,
I have a tax related question, its just a second opinion really if there are any accountants or anyone in the know with CGT that may have theorized this themselves before.
IF, - i buy $10,000 worth of a stock, then in a few months this stock is now worth $11,000. - i then decide to sell exactly $10,000 worth, the same amount i paid for it but holding the difference in the shares ( 10% worth).
When i do my tax return do i pay CGT on the $10,000 i sold, even though it was the same buy and sell amount is $
My theory was since there's no CG, i would only pay CGT on the remaining $1000 when it was sold.
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