newbaby;
Thanks for your response and explanation. In a strange way it does make sense.
I believe, using this theory/concept, the seller would not have to re-acquire the same number of shares before the ex-dividend date. What they lose on dividends, they should be able to make up for on the sp difference as it appreciates. Hmmmm......
On a different note, the faded signal I received a few days ago has just turned into a Short signal!!!!......
But I suppose time will tell. I could very well be wrong here. Please do your own research.
Thanks again.
Cheers;
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Last
$21.90 |
Change
0.490(2.29%) |
Mkt cap ! $9.616B |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
$21.78 | $22.00 | $21.69 | $57.67M | 2.631M |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
1 | 2193 | $21.84 |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
$21.91 | 1786 | 2 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
1 | 1151 | 21.710 |
1 | 500 | 21.700 |
1 | 50 | 21.600 |
1 | 25 | 21.300 |
1 | 920 | 21.040 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
21.950 | 1200 | 1 |
22.060 | 250 | 1 |
22.080 | 597 | 1 |
22.100 | 890 | 2 |
22.190 | 1750 | 1 |
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