yes or no, page-184

  1. 23,206 Posts.
    . NKJV uses the term love. KJV uses charity. Point is they all lead back to the Greek agape. I didn't say it says something different.

    I think you are avoiding the issue of the contradictions in the nature and character of the god of the bible as described by the bible itself. Here is the quote from KJV, it says what it says and its meaning is clear. Playing with semantics doesn't alter the essential message, you can switch to 'agape' if you like - Agape (Ancient Greek ἀγάπη, agápē) is a Greco-Christian term referring to love, "the highest form of love, charity" and "the love of God for man and of man for God".[1] - but that would not change the fundamental meaning of these verses:

    7 Beloved, let us love one another: for love is of God; and every one that loveth is born of God, and knoweth God.
    8 He that loveth not knoweth not God; for God is love.

    ''With over 100 english versions of the bible, of which there are numerous variations in terminology, is it any wonder the world is confounded and confused when it comes to God. And who is responsible for that? (A rhetorical question). Here are some questions that confound and confuse even the so called elite:''

    So much for the clarity of what is claimed to be a body of works inspired by the Creator of the Universe. Which still avoids the clear and indisputable contradictions between various descriptions of the nature of God as described in the bible. This remains true regardless of how fancy a semantic shuffle, agape, etc is used in an attempt to reconcile these irreconcilable contradictions.
    Last edited by DBT9: 19/09/17
 
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