I am wondering about that too. I am not seeking to be...

I am wondering about that too. I am not seeking to be argumentative, but just to understand.

8horse indicates that if there is 'no changing of underlying beneficiary', then the transfer wouldn't constitute a sale. I am the sole beneficiary of my trust, but if I transfer shares from my personal account to the trust account then it is deemed a sale (or at least that is how my accountant has been treating it).

If I transferred from my personally held CMC markets account to my personally held commsec account then that would not be deemed a sale.

If the shareholder top 20 list names Michael Langford - does that mean it is his personal account (not that of a company or trust) ?

Hoping someone can clarify,

Thanks
CC