Hey Zxc, excuse me for a fairly novice question but I am not super experienced with options. Other than where there is a dividend involved (where the holder must hold the underlying shares to receive the dividend and hence might exercise early), why would an options holder do this?
In all cases other than the above is it not more economical to exercise the option closer to expiry? Assuming the actions of the holder align with individual benefits (and not shared gains such as providing the company with capital etc.).
Thanks
Hey Zxc, excuse me for a fairly novice question but I am not...
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