this 16% will be in lieu of any royalty I assume... isn't it? they cannot have ROYALTY pre-profits and then 16% of any dividends declared...
can someone with a better understanding of how (say) 4% of pre-tax profit as ROYALTY compare with 16% POST TAX DIVIDEND? I am no accountant but I think if this can be calculated, we might come to a zero difference as the outgo in each case could be the same...
Of course, I am ASSUMING that royalty will disappear with this new 16% free carried interest...
Ann: Trading Halt, page-81
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