Its pretty clear based on the ICC rules that once the court has signed off on the arbitration case the participants would know the outcome assuming the fee's have been paid.
So lets apply some common sense.
What possible reason could either of them have for not paying given they are not privy to the outcome before paying?
Both companies think they are right, so IMO, both would have paid.
Commonsense says IF they have both paid then they both have the decision.
Given we have heard nothing then ITS more than likely IMO that FAR have won because IF we had lost they would have announced it by now IMO.
Back of the envelope ..., page-155
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