I may well be wrong but I would be surprised if someone with a significant holding of 8m shares (of more) would sell at 22c given what is expected in the next month or 2.
Again I might be wrong but I seem to recall seeing a while ago that the number of shares borrowed exceeded the number actually shorted by a fair margin. If that is correct is it possible someone is simply returning shares they had borrowed to the lender that they now don’t intend to use for shorting?
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Last
1.6¢ |
Change
0.000(0.00%) |
Mkt cap ! $49.76M |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
1.6¢ | 1.6¢ | 1.6¢ | $15.23K | 952.4K |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
35 | 9905860 | 1.5¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
1.6¢ | 361206 | 2 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
35 | 9905860 | 0.015 |
12 | 2591049 | 0.014 |
7 | 2633923 | 0.013 |
7 | 1805833 | 0.012 |
4 | 2365909 | 0.011 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
0.016 | 361206 | 2 |
0.017 | 3007153 | 9 |
0.018 | 2862774 | 9 |
0.019 | 3659762 | 9 |
0.020 | 1653444 | 13 |
Last trade - 11.16am 12/07/2024 (20 minute delay) ? |
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